Does this prove I made seem correct to show that if $6$ divides $a$ then $9$ divides $a^2$
If $6\mid a$, then $a = 6k$ (k is some integer).
Then $a^2 = 36k^2 = 9(4k^2)$.
Which means that $9\mid a^2$.
perhaps if not is there any other way?
Does this prove I made seem correct to show that if $6$ divides $a$ then $9$ divides $a^2$
If $6\mid a$, then $a = 6k$ (k is some integer).
Then $a^2 = 36k^2 = 9(4k^2)$.
Which means that $9\mid a^2$.
perhaps if not is there any other way?
On
What you've done is perfect.
An alternate method of proof for all those people who just love modular arithmetic:
Since $6\mid a$, then $a\equiv 6,\; 3,\; \text{or}\; 0 \pmod{9}$. Note that $6^2 \equiv 3^2 \equiv 0^2 \equiv 0\pmod{9}$. Thus, $9\mid a^2.$
On
Your proof is correct. It easily generalizes to the following (yours is special case $\,b=a,\,B=A)$
$$ \begin{eqnarray} && a\mid A\\ &&b\mid B\end{eqnarray}\ \ \Rightarrow\ \ ab\mid AB$$
This has a fundamental converse, namely
$$c\mid AB\ \ \Rightarrow\ \ c = ab, \begin{eqnarray} && a\mid A\\ &&b\mid B\end{eqnarray}\ \ \ {\rm for\ some}\ \ a,b$$
This is equivalent to the uniqueness of factorizations into primes (atoms), since the special case when $\,c = p\,$ prime is $\ p\mid AB\,\Rightarrow\,p\mid A,\,$ or $\,p\mid B,\,$ which implies said uniqueness by a simple inductive proof.
This leads to an important refinement view of unique factorization - which has the benefit of generalizing nicely to other rings (esp. noncomutative rings, as Paul Cohn showed). For further discussion see here and here.
You've done just fine! You correctly used what you were given, and used the definition of divisibility (by $6$), to obtain your result.
Good work!