Show that any plane whose normal lies on cone $(b+c)x^2+(c+a)y^2+(a+b)z^2=0$ cuts the surface $ax^2+by^2+cz^2=1$ is rectangular hyperbola
My attempt: let $\frac {x}{l} = \frac {y}{m} = \frac {z}{n}$ be normal of plane $lx+my+nz = 0$. Now the normal is generator of given cone. So we get condition $(b+c)l^2+(c+a)m^2+(a+b)n^2=0$ --->(1)
THe given plane cuts the conicoid $ax^2+by^2+cz^2=1$.
The intersecting conic :
Eliminating z between plane equation and conicoid equation
$z = \frac{-lx-my}{n} $ Subsittuting this in conicoid equation we get,
$ax^2+by^2+c\frac{(-lx-my)^2}{n^2} =1 $ --->(2)
This represents rectangular hyperbola if
coefficient of $x^2$ + coefficient of $y^2$ = 0
$(2)$ implies
$a+b+c\frac{l^2}{n^2}+c\frac{m^2}{n^2} =0 \\ \fbox {$n^2(a+b) + c(l^2+m^2) = 0$}$ for conic to be rectangular hyperbola
If i eliminate x, i get $\fbox {$l^2(b+c)+a(m^2+n^2)=0$}$ for conic to be rectangular hyperbola
If i eliminate y, i get $\fbox {$m^2(c+a)+b(n^2+l^2)=0$}$ for conic to be rectangular hyperbola
But what i have is equation (1) with me for conic to be rectangular hyperbola
How to proceed further?
First we will make some required transformations to assure that the formula $(b+c)x^2+(c+a)y^2+(a+b)z^2=0\;$ represents a real cone.
A real cone with circular base over the $x \times y$ plane and vertice at the origin should be represented as
$$ K\to m x^2+n y^2+p z^2 = 0 $$
with $m = n$ and $m > 0, n > 0, p < 0$
so we will choose $a,b,c$ such that
$$ b+c=m\\ a+c=n\\ a+b=p $$
in this representation a line $L$
$$ L\to P = \rho\vec v \to \left\{ \begin{array}{rcl} x = \rho \alpha\\ y = \rho \beta\\ z = \rho \gamma \end{array} \right.\;\;\;\; P = (x,y,z) $$
is such that $L \in K$ when
$$ m\alpha^2+n\beta^2+p\gamma^2=0 $$
Now with the help of $\vec v$ and $\vec w = (m\alpha,n\beta,p\gamma)$ Here $\left < \vec v, \vec w\right> = 0$, we can build a plane $\Pi$
$$ \Pi\to P = \lambda \vec w + \mu \left(\vec v \times \vec w\right) $$
as required. Given now the surface
$$ S\to ax^2+by^2+cy^2-1=0\equiv \frac{1}{2} x^2 (-m+n+p)+\frac{1}{2} y^2 (m-n+p)+\frac{1}{2} z^2 (m+n-p)-1 = 0 $$
the intersection $S\cap \Pi$ is obtained
$$ \left(S\circ\Pi\right)(\lambda,\mu) = \frac{1}{2} \left(-4 (m-n-p) (\alpha \lambda m+\beta \gamma \mu (n-p))^2+4 (m+n-p) (\alpha \beta \mu (m-n)+\gamma \lambda p)^2+4 (m-n+p) (\alpha \gamma \mu (p-m)+\beta \lambda n)^2-2\right)= 0 $$
but we can introduce a slight normalization to simplify the representation by considering
$$ m\alpha^2+n\beta^2+p\gamma^2=0\\ \alpha^2+\beta^2+\gamma^2 = 1\\ \beta = \beta_0 = 0\\ m = n\\ $$
and thus we have the intersection curve on $\Pi$ as
$$ 2np^2\lambda^2-2np^2\mu^2-1=0 $$
which is a rectangular hyperbola.