Let $d\in\mathbb N$, $x\in M\subseteq\mathbb R^d$ and $\psi^{(i)}:\Omega_i\to\psi^{(i)}(\Omega_i)$ be a diffeomorphism with $x\in\Omega_i$, $$\psi^{(1)}(M\cap\Omega_1)=\psi^{(1)}(\Omega_1)\cap(\mathbb R^k\times\{0\})\tag1,$$ $$\psi^{(2)}(M\cap\Omega_2)=\psi^{(2)}(\Omega_2)\cap(\mathbb H^k\times\{0\})\tag2,$$ where $\mathbb H^k:=\{u\in\mathbb R^k:u_k\ge0\}$, and $\psi^{(2)}_k(x)=0$.
I want to conclude that both $\psi^{(i)}$ cannot exist simultaneously.
Let $\Omega:=\Omega_1\cap\Omega_2$. One argument that I found started with observing that $\phi^{(1)}(M\cap\Omega)$ is open (in $\mathbb R^d$). But I don't get that. Why is that necessarily the case? By definition of a diffeomorphism, all we know should be that $\Omega_i$ and $\psi^{(i)}(\Omega_i)$ are open.
This has been asked and answered before on MSE.
Why can there not be a diffeomorphism $\phi$ from an open neighborhood of a boundary point—say the origin—in $\Bbb H^k$ to an open neighborhood of a point in $\Bbb R^k$? View $\Bbb H^k$ as a subset of $\Bbb R^k$, and suppose $\phi(0)=a\in\Bbb R^k$. By the inverse function theorem, $\phi^{-1}$ maps some open neighborhood $U$ of $a$ onto a open neighborhood of $0\in\Bbb R^k$. (This follows from the fact that $d\phi^{-1}(a)$ is nonsingular.) So its image cannot be contained in $\Bbb H^k$.