I am now self-studying stochastic calculus textbook. I have a question regarding the martingale property of Brownian motion.
The book says:
$$\mathbb E[B(t)-B(s)\mid F_s]=\mathbb E[B(t)-B(s)]$$ by the independence of $B(t)-B(s)$ and $\mathcal F_s$, where $B$ is a Brownian motion, $t\geq s \geq 0$, and $\mathcal F_s=\sigma(B(r),0 \leq r \leq s)$.
But I don't quite get it. I know that $B(t)-B(s)$ is independent of $B(r)$ for every $r\in[0,s]$ by the definition of Brownian motion (independent increments). However, how does that imply that $B(t)-B(s)$ is independent of $\mathcal F_s$?
Also, I am curious whether $\mathcal F_s$ is the smallest $\sigma$-algebra making $B(r)$ measurable for all $r\in [0,s]$. Is this true? Then I think I could prove the above claim. But I am not so sure about this....
Can anyone help me with this? Any help would be appreciated!
Thanks and regards.
Intuitively, $\mathcal F_s$ contains "all the information from observing the process up to time $s$". Hence, by the defining properties of the Brownian motion, what happens after $s$ in relative terms, i.e., the increment $B(t)-B(s)$ is independent of what happened up to $s$, i.e., of the information in $\mathcal F_s$.