I'm new to topology, and can't figure out why the metric and product topologies over $\mathbb{R}^n$ are equivalent. Could someone please show me how to prove this?
Showing that the product and metric topology on $\mathbb{R}^n$ are equivalent
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In order to prove that two topologies are equivalent you need to prove that for each point $x$ and each element open set of the first topology $U_1$ such that $x\in U_1$ there exist some some open set of the second topology $U_2$ such that $x\in U_2\subset U_1$ and vice versa.
Take $x\in\mathbb{R}^n$ and take some open set $U_1$ of metric topology that contains $x$. Since $U_1$ is open we can find a ball $B(x,r)\subset U_1$ that conatins $x$. This ball contains the open box $U_2=(x-\delta,x+\delta)\times\ldots\times(x-\delta,x+\delta)$ for $\delta$ small enough (in fact we can take $\delta=n^{-1/2}r$), which is an open set in the product topology and moreover $x\in U_2\subset B(x,r)\subset U_1$. Hence we proved that metric topology is contained in the product topology.
Again take $x\in\mathbb{R}^n$ and take some open set $U_2$ of the product topology that contains $x$. Since $U_2$ is open we can find a box $(x-\delta,x+\delta)\times\ldots\times(x-\delta,x+\delta)$ which contains $x$. This box contains the ball $U_1:=B(x,0.5\cdot\delta)$ i.e. an element of the base of the metric topology and moreover $x\in U_1\subset(x-\delta,x+\delta)^n\subset U_2$. Thus we proved that product topology is contained in the metric topology.
Since both implications are proved we conclude that this topologies are coincide.
The product topology is induced by this norm. $$\|x\|_{\rm prod} = \max\{|x_k|, 1\le k \le n\}$$ Let us use $\|\cdot\|$ for the Euclidean norm. Then $$\|x\| = \left(\sum_{k=1}^n x_k^2\right)^{1/2}\le \left(\sum_{k=1}^n \|x\|_{\rm prod}^2\right)^{1/2} = \|x\|_{\rm prod}\sqrt{n}.$$
Now for a reverse inequality.
We have $$|x_k |\le \left(\sum_{k=1}^n x_k^2\right)^{1/2}, \qquad 1\le k \le n,$$ so $$\|x\|_{\rm prod} \le \|x\|.$$
The norms are equivalent.