lets one function $f:\mathbb{R}-\{0\}\mapsto\mathbb{R}$ where $\mathbb{R}$ is the set of reals, lets $f$ such that $f\left(\frac{a}{b}\right)=f(a)-f(b)$ for every $a$ and $b$ in belonging to the domain of f, shown that $f$ is a even function.
attempt
for $(a,b)=(x,y)\Rightarrow f\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)=f(x)-f(y)$
for $(a,b)=(-x,-y)\Rightarrow f\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)=f(-x)-f(-y)$
for $(a,b)=(-x,y)\Rightarrow f\left(-\frac{x}{y}\right)=f(-x)-f(y)$
for $(a,b)=(x,-y)\Rightarrow f\left(-\frac{x}{y}\right)=f(x)-f(-y)$
so we want to proof that $f(a)=f(-a)$, we have
$$\begin{align} f\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)&=f(x)-f(y)=f(-x)-f(-y)\\ f\left(-\frac{x}{y}\right)&=f(-x)-f(y)=f(x)-f(-y) \end{align}$$
but i dont know how i can finish the proof, any hint?
Hint: