So, as I have read and even been taught by my teachers, sign convention in trigonometric functions is based on the location of the respective x and y points denoting the coordinates of a particle going around a circle.
Although I am kind of sure that I am right but I still want to confirm this one thing:
When determining the slope of a graph, we encounter both obtuse and acute angles (the angle made by the tangent of the graph at a particular point on it with the x axis). So, is it just a coincidence that tan(a)(the angle made by the tangent) is positive in case of acute angles and negative in case of obtuse angles in both this graphical sense as well as tan(a) for a point on a circle?
Because if a is obtuse(graph), that would mean that the quantity in the y axis is decreasing and if it is increasing, the angle is positive. So, I just want to ask that here tan(a) just happens to be equal to the slope of the graph right? I checked for other trigonometric functions and well sin(a) seems to be negative if the angle is obtuse in the graphical sense but positive in the circular sense.
Edit: I have added a picture for clarity about my definition of graphical and circular sense.
I think I get Where your confusion lies,Though comment made by @Jmoravitz is accurate to point that we should have same language to talk about things,in this case,Definitions matter a lot, Now you, due to some reason I don't follow,Try to differentiate between graphical sense and circular sense, The trigonometric functions for "any angle" are defined using unit circle,This does not mean they might not apply to angles in "graphical sense" that you seem to perceive,Angles are angles,No matter where they are,either associated to unit circle,Or between some random curve's tangent and "x-axis"
Now,trigonometric functions such as $\tan\theta$,Here,happens to be slope of Tangent making angle:$\theta$ with x-axis,If slope of Tangent would have happened to be Some other function,We would have used That Function instead Of $\tan\theta$
Now one could also argue that It is intuitive why tangent function and Slope of tangent relate for positive slopes ,i.e $0\leq\theta\leq90°$,Because before extension of Trigonometric ratios to trigonometric functions, the definition of slope Of tangent and definition of $\tan\theta$ Co-incides ,or precisely the same,
To be clear the extension of definition of trigonometric ratios to functions was not a co-incidence,Mathematicians already knew that they would have to include negative slope in order to again co-incides the tangent function with slope