The question is to prove that $\frac{(2n+1)!}{(n!)^{2}}$ divides $lcm(1,2,\ldots,2n+1)$.
This seems like it should be a simple question, but try as I might, I can't seems to find any way that does not involve a complicated argument using prime factorization.
So anyone know any simple obvious method to prove this? Thanks a lot.
I'm not sure if you'd this argument complicated, but one way to prove the statement goes as follows:
Let $v_p(k)$ be the valuation of prime $p$ in number $k$; i.e. the highest power of $p$ which divides $k$. There are a few observations we can make: