When addressing the questions, which are featured below, I use the following definition and two lemmas.
Definition: $\phi$ is a tautology if $[[\phi]]_{v}=1$ for all valuations $v$.
Moreover, $\models \phi $ stands for $\phi$ is a tautology.
Let $\Gamma$ be a set of propositions, then $\Gamma \models \phi$ if and only if for all $v$: ($[[\psi]]_{v}=1$ for all $\psi \in \Gamma$) $\implies [[\phi]]_{v}=1$.
Lemma 1. $\phi_{1}, \dots, \phi_{n} \models \phi \iff [[\phi_{1}]] \land \dots \land [[\phi_{n}]] \leq [[\phi]] $
Proof sketch: This result follows immediately from the definition above.
Lemma 2. $\phi_{1}, \dots, \phi_{n}, \phi \models \psi \iff \phi_{1}, \dots, \phi_{n} \models \phi \to \psi$
Proof sketch: Use lemma 1 to transform the problem into $[[\phi_{1}]] \land \dots \land [[\phi_{n}]] \ $ Then, note that this form satisfy a Galois connection.
Now, here are the problems and my answer.
(a) For every set of formulas $\Gamma$, every formula $\phi$ and every formula $\psi$ we have that if $\Gamma \models \phi \land \psi$, then $\Gamma \models \phi$ and $\Gamma \models \psi$.
True. We may interprete $[[\phi \land \psi]]=\min([[\phi]],[[\psi]])$ and so $\Gamma \leq \phi$ and $\Gamma \leq \psi$, which shows the proposition.
(b) For every set of formulas $\Gamma$, every formula $\phi$ and every formula $\psi$ we have that if $\Gamma \models \phi \lor \psi$, then $\Gamma \models \phi$ or $\Gamma \models \psi$.
True (?). We may interprete $[[\phi \lor \psi]]=\max([[\phi]],[[\psi]])$ and so $\Gamma \models \phi \lor \psi$ really means $\Gamma \leq \text{max}([[\phi]],[[\psi]])$. Now, it is clear that for every instance, either $[[\Gamma]] \leq [[\phi]]$ or $[[\Gamma]] \leq [[\psi]]$, which, together with lemma 1, shows the claim.
(c) $P_{1} \land P_{2}, \neg P_{2} \models \neg P_{1}$
True (?). Combining lemma 2 and lemma 1 we see that the proposition really means $P_{1} \land P_{2} \leq P_{2} \lor \neg P_{1}$, which holds.
(d) $\bot \models \phi$ for any formula $\phi$
True. This is a consequence of lemma 1.
(e) $\phi \models \top$ for any formula $\phi$.
True. Again this is also a consequence of lemma 1.
Am I on the right track, or is there something wicked in the reasoning? Any feedback is very much appreciated.