I am going through the analytic continuation article here. I am working through the worked example but am stuck at the final step.
Here is the problem:
$$a_{k} =\frac{1}{2\pi}\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} (-1)^{n}\int_{0}^{2\pi} \sum_{m=0}^{n}\binom{n}{m}(a-1)^{n-m}(re^{i\theta})^{m-k}d\theta.$$
But since $\int_{0}^{2\pi}(re^{i\theta})^{m-k}d\theta = 2\pi r^{m-k} \delta_{m,k}$, only the $m = k$ term in the finite summation survives and we are left with:
$$a_{k} = \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \binom{n}{k}(-1)^{n}(a-1)^{n-k}$$
How do I get from here to
$$a_{k} = (-1)^{k}a^{-k-1}? $$
Comment:
In (1) we set the lower limit to $n=k$, since $\binom{n}{k}=0$ if $n<k$.
In (2) we shift the index to start with $n=0$. We also use $\binom{p}{q}=\binom{p}{p-q}$.
In (3) we use the binomial identity $\binom{-p}{q}=\binom{p+q-1}{q}(-1)^q$.
In (4) we apply the binomial series expansion.