Question: Prove that for all real numbers $x$ excluding $0$, $\sin(\dfrac{1}{x}) \neq \pm\dfrac{1}{x}$.
Here's what I've done so far: Let $y = \dfrac{1}{x}$. Then $y\in (-\infty,0)\bigcup(0,\infty)$. We know that for $0 < y < \dfrac{\pi}{2}, -1<0<\cos y<\dfrac{\sin y}{y}<1 \Rightarrow -y<\sin y < y$. Since $\dfrac{\sin(-y)}{-y} = \dfrac{\sin y}{y}$ and $\cos(-y)=\cos y$, then for $-\dfrac{\pi}{2} < y<0, -1<0<\cos y<\dfrac{\sin y}{y} < 1 \Rightarrow -y>\sin y > y$. Since $\max(\sin y) = 1$ and $\min(\sin y) = -1 \forall y\in \mathbb{R}, y \in (-\infty,0)\bigcup(0,\infty)$, when $y>1$, $\sin y \neq y\wedge \sin y \neq -y$ (notice that if we let $y < -1,$ we will obtain an equivalent expression). So, considering all cases, $\sin y \neq y, -y \forall y\in \mathbb{R}, y \in (-\infty,0)\bigcup(0,\infty)$. Since $y= \dfrac{1}{x},$ then $sin(\dfrac{1}{x})\neq \dfrac{1}{x} \forall x\in \mathbb{R}, x\neq 0$
Edit: I don't know if it's the work above that makes this question confusing, but I'll delete my "work" if need be. It should be very obvious as to what the question is.

Proving that $\sin(\frac{1}{x})\neq \pm\frac{1}{x}\forall x\neq 0$ is same as saying that the only possible solutions of $y=\pm\sin y$ are at $0$, which is true, because the functions $y-\sin y$ and $y+\sin y$ are non-decreasing on $\mathbb R$ (that you can check by differentiation) and therefore intersect $x$-axis only once.