I have the equation from one of the textbooks (which is, I know, very simple):
$40x+3 = (x+14)(x+3)+(x+1)$. My first approach to the solution is as follows
$$\begin{align*} 40x+3&=x^{2} +14x +3x +42 +x +1 \\[0.1cm] 40x+3 &= x^{2} +18x +43\\[0.1cm] 40x &= x^{2} +18x + 40 \\[0.1cm] 0 &= x^{2} -22x +40 \\[0.1cm] 0 &= (x-2)(x-20) \end{align*}$$
and it follows that $x_{1} = 2$ and $x_{2} = 20$ (these are also the solutions in the textbook). The second approach:
$$\begin{align*} 40x+3&=x^{2} +14x +3x +42 +x +1 \\[0.1cm] 40x+3 &= x^{2} +18x +43\\[0.1cm] 40x &= x^{2} +18x +40 \\[0.1cm] 22x &= x^{2} + 40 \\[0.1cm] -x^{2} +22x -40 &= 0 \\[0.1cm] - (x-2)(x-20)&= 0 \end{align*}$$
Why do I get $- (x-2)(x-20)$ with the second approach, I should get the same answer as before. Where is the mistake?
Negatives can trip people up easily at first:
You have reduced things to $0 = x^{2} -22x + 40 = (x-2)(x-20)$
Note that by subtracting from both sides:
$(x-2)(x-20)= 0$
$(x-2)(x-20)-(x-2)(x-20) = 0 -(x-2)(x-20)$
$ \Rightarrow 0=-(x-2)(x-20)$
So it is equivalent to solve $0=-(x-2)(x-20)$ and $0=(x-2)(x-20)$.
This kind of situation arises often, you just have to get used to it.
Further, note:
$(x-2)(x-20)= 0$
$(-1)(2-x)(-1)(20-x)= 0$
$(2-x)(20-x)= 0$
So it is equivalent to solve $0=(x-2)(x-20)$ and $0=(2-x)(20-x)$.