The question reads, Find all differentiable functions $f$ such that $$f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)+x^2y$$ for all $x,y \in \mathbb{R} $. The function $f$ also satisfies $$\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}\frac {f(x)}x = 0$$
To solve the problem I wrote the expression for $\frac{df}{dx}$ using first principle and found that $\frac{df}{dx} = x^2.$(Due to the given conditions.)
Using this and calculating $f(0)$ as zero I got the implication that $f(x)$ must be $\frac{x^3}{3}.$
But, Clearly the calculated $f(x)$ does not satisfy the required condition for the problem. Thinking about where I had committed the mistake, I realized that $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)+x^2y$ cannot be true for all real $x,y$.
So how is it that these operations that implied $f(x)=\frac{x^3}{3}$ went wrong?
And why is it that while doing these operations I could not 'see' that the conditions cannot be satisfied for all real $x$?
EDIT:Reading the comments, I want to make the clarification that I realise the fact that there can not be any $ f(x) $ that satisfies these conditions using a different method. However I fail to understand why the method elaborated in the question does not reflect this fact to me??
The problem conditions are implicitly self-contradictory. If we accept them and shall follow them then we can rigorously prove a lot of claims about the function $f$ and we can believe that everything is OK, until we obtain an explicit contradiction.
I quote famous Bertrand Russell’s illustration.
Also we can easily construct a formal logical argument showing that a contradiction implies any proposition.