I'm just working with splitting fields and I have to prove something which I don't understand.
Let $L$ be a splitting field of the polynomial $f$ over $K$ and $f = \prod_{i=1}^n(X-\alpha_i)$.
Prove: $L = K(\alpha_1, …, \alpha_{n-1})$ (so one alpha less!)
By definition we have $L = K(\alpha_1, …, \alpha_{n-1}, \alpha_{n}) \subset K(\alpha_1, …, \alpha_{n-1})$. That means we have to show that $\alpha_n \in K(\alpha_1, …, \alpha_{n-1})$, but I don't know why that should be the case?
We have that over $\;L':=K(\alpha_1,...,\alpha_{n-1})\;$ :
$$f(x)=\prod_{i=1}^{n-1} (X-\alpha_i)\cdot g(x)\;,\;\;g(x)\in L'[x]$$
but it must be that $\;g(x)=X-\alpha_n\;$ , so we've no option but to deduce that $\;\alpha_n\in L'\;$ and we're done.