I am trying to find the intersection of ideals $$ (X)\cap (X^{2}-Y+1)\subseteq\mathbb{R}[X,Y]. $$
This is what I have tried: $$ f\in(X^{2}-Y+1)\Rightarrow f=g\cdot (X^{2}-Y+1)\text{ for certain }g\in\mathbb{R}[X,Y], $$ $$ f\in (X)\Rightarrow 0=f(0,t)=g(0,t)\cdot (1-t)\text{ for all }t\in \mathbb{R}. $$ How could we follow?
I would also like to know if $\mathbb{R}[X,Y]/((X)\cap (X^{2}-Y+1))$ has idempotent elements different from $0,1$.
$(X)\cap (X^{2}-Y+1)$ is very simple to find: $X$ and $X^{2}-Y+1$ are irreducible polynomials (since they have degree one in one of the variables), and obviously $\gcd(X,X^{2}-Y+1)=1$. Then $(X)\cap (X^{2}-Y+1)=(X)(X^{2}-Y+1)$.
Now about the idempotents: if $f^2-f\in(X)\cap (X^{2}-Y+1)$, then $X\mid f(f-1)$ and $X^{2}-Y+1\mid f(f-1)$. If $X\mid f$ and $X^{2}-Y+1\mid f$, then $f=0$ in the quotient ring $\mathbb R[X,Y]/(X)\cap(X^2-Y+1)$, and similarly if $X\mid f-1$ and $X^{2}-Y+1\mid f-1$, then $f=1$. But we could have $X\mid f-1$ and $X^{2}-Y+1\mid f$ (or vice versa), so $f=1+Xg=(X^{2}-Y+1)h$. This leads to $1\in(X,X^{2}-Y+1)=(X,Y-1)$, a contradiction. In conclusion, there are no non-trivial idempotents.