Let $(X_i)_{i\in\mathbb{N}}$ be a sequence of real valued i.i.d. random variables for which the following convergence in probability holds
$$\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^nX_i\stackrel{n\to\infty}{\longrightarrow}c,$$
where $c\in\mathbb{R}.$
Now consider a sequence $(B_i)_{i\in\mathbb{N}}$ of i.i.d. Bernoulli random variables in $\{0,1\}$ of parameter $p.$ I'm expecting that the following convergence in probability holds:
$$\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^nX_iB_i\stackrel{n\to\infty}{\longrightarrow}cp.$$
Any idea how to prove it?
Suppose $X_i$ have mean $\mu$ and variance $\sigma^2$. By i.i.d. of $X_i$, we must have $\overline{X}$ have mean $\mu$ and variance $\sigma^2/n$. But $\overline{X}$ converges to $c$ itself, so $\mu = c$. Then by the (weak) law of large numbers, \begin{align*} \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}X_i B_i \overset{\mathcal{P}}{\rightarrow} \mathbb{E}[X_1 B_1] = \mathbb{E}[X_1] \mathbb{E}[B_1] = cp \end{align*}