I've seen a question in my math book with this explanation above it: "If the product of n positive real numbers is 1, then the sum of these numbers must be more than n". I was wondering if this is correct, and if it is, could someone give an explanation or a proof for it?
2026-03-29 14:58:53.1774796333
Sum of real numbers that multiply to 1
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AM-GM, for $n$ in the positive reals, states $$\displaystyle\frac{\sum\limits^{n}_{i=1}a_i}{n}\ge \left(\prod^{n}_{i=1}{a_i}\right)^\frac{1}{n}$$