I am currently considering a sum $$\sum_{r=0}^{n}{\binom{n}{r} (-1)^{r} (1-\frac{r}{n})^{n}}$$ but have no thoughtful ideas how to start.
Maybe it's worth noticing that $$\sum_{r=0}^{n}{\binom{n}{n-r}(-1)^{r}(1-\frac{r}{n})^{n}} = \sum_{r=0}^{n}{\binom{n}{r} (-1)^{r} (1-\frac{r}{n})^{n}}$$ and apply to the first one the convolution rule, but this doesn't seem productive enough.
Are there any hints that might help? Would be grateful to recieve any.
We'll prov it combinatorically.
First note that $$\sum_{r=0}^{n} {n\choose r} (-1)^r (1-\frac rn)^n = \frac1{n^n} \sum_{r=0}^{n} {n\choose r} (-1)^r (n-r)^n$$
Now consider the rhs. By Inclusion exclusion principle, we can see that the sum is exactly the number of words in length $n$ with the letters $\{1,...n\}$ such that each letter appears at least once:
if we consider $p_i = $the letter i doesnt appear, we have:
$W(p_{i_1},....,p_{i_r})= (n-r)^n$ (the letters $i_1,...,i_r$ doesnt appear, so we pick for each of the $n$ spots of the word a letter out of the $n-r$ letters remaining). Then $$W(r) = {n \choose r}(n-r)^n$$ And finally we want $$E(0) = \sum_{r=0}^{n} {n\choose r} (-1)^r W(r)$$
Which combinatorical meaning is that each letter appears at least once.
So the rhs sum is exactly the number of words of size $n$ that each letter appear exactly once, which means the permutations over $n$ different letters, which is $n!$
Therefore you get that the lhs is equal $$\frac{n!}{n^n}$$