Suppose $x\in A \land x\notin B$. Then $A\setminus B \subseteq C\cap D$ and thus $x\in D$. Therefore, $x\notin D \rightarrow x\in B$.
I understand the proof when i take the contra positive of what im trying to prove. But I dont see how $x\notin D \rightarrow x\in B$. Lets try to prove it without the contrapositive as i think this will help me see how $x\notin D \rightarrow x\in B$.
Suppose $x\notin D$, then $x\notin C\cap D$. I dont see how we can assume anything about B from here, especially that $x\in B$. What am i missing?
Here is how you would prove with the assumption that $x\notin D$.
Proof: Suppose that $x\notin D$. This implies that $x\notin C\cap D$. Given that $A\setminus B \subseteq C\cap D$, we know that $x\notin A\setminus B$. As if $x\in A\setminus B$, then $x\in C\cap D$. The element $x\notin A\setminus B$ only if $x\notin A$ or $x\in B$. We are already given that $x\in A$. From this we conclude that $x\in B$.