Let $g_n$ be a sequence of functions, f a function.
Why, in general, is $$\sup_n(g_n\circ f)\ne\sup_n(g_n)\circ f$$ while $$\limsup_n(g_n\circ f)=\limsup_n(g_n)\circ f$$ holds?
2026-03-29 19:09:45.1774811385
Supremum and Limit superior
34 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in SUPREMUM-AND-INFIMUM
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