I have been searching many ways for a week just to solve this, to no avail.
I'm still confused about how the Taylor expansion is produced.
It is so advanced compared to the subjects that I took.
I am currently taking advance researches or work/journals from other mathematicians but I still cannot do this:
$$\frac{(e^{w}-1)^{k}}{k!} = \sum_{n=k}^{\infty }{ n \brace k} \frac{w^{n}}{n!}.$$
Let us recall that the Stirling numbers satisfy the identities: $$\begin{array}{rcl} \displaystyle{ n \brace k} &=& \displaystyle \frac{1}{k!}\sum_{j=0}^{k}(-1)^{k-j}{k \choose j}j^n = \frac{1}{k!}\sum_{j=0}^{k}(-1)^{j}{k \choose j}(k-j)^{n} \\\displaystyle{ n+1 \brace k} &=& \displaystyle k{ n \brace k}+ { n \brace k-1} \end{array}$$
and appear in the Taylor expansion: $$\frac{(e^{w}-1)^{k}}{k!} = \sum_{n=k}^{\infty }{ n \brace k}\frac{w^{n}}{n!}.$$
In the following we use the coefficient of operator $[z^k]$ to denote the coefficient of $z^k$ in a series. This way we can write e.g. \begin{align*} \binom{n}{k}=[z^k](1+z)^n\qquad\text{and}\qquad k^n=n![z^n]e^{kz} \end{align*}
Comment:
In (1) we apply the coefficient of operator.
In (2) we do some rearrangements and use the linearity of the coefficient of operator.
In (3) we apply the binomial theorem.