
$K$ generated by $(ar,rb)$ for every $a\in A$, $b\in B$, $r\in R$.
$F$ generated by $r(a,b)$ for every $a\in A$, $b\in B$, $r\in R$.
$(a,rb)=(ar,b)=r(a,b)$,then $K=F$, $F/K=0$
Apparently I misread the definition.I must be doing something wrong.
Thanks in advance
No, the tensor product isn't zero. Be more careful about the definition. The way tensor product is constructed is to take the free group generated by elements of $A \times B$ and what we really want is to have identities such as $(a+a',b)=(a,b)+(a',b)$ so we take the subgroup generated by those three above types of elements and then taking quotient would kill all those elements of $F$ where $(a+a',b)=(a,b)+(a',b)$ doesn't hold. So in fact, in $F/K$ we have $(a+a',b)=(a,b)+(a',b), (a,b+b')=(a,b)+(a,b')$ and $(ar,b)=(a,rb)$ which is exactly what we hoped for.