Suppose $R$ is a commutative ring with unity and $I, J$ be two ideals of R with the property that $R\simeq I\otimes_R J$ as an $R$-modules. How can I show that $I$ is a projective $R$-module?
For me, this seems like a blend of all concepts that I have learned so far in module theory and couldn't think of a way to solve this question. Can any one give me a solution with an explanation of whats happening here. Thanks for anything you can provide on this.
Note that $R \cong I \otimes_R J$ implies that the functor $R\textrm{-}\mathbf{Mod} \to R\textrm{-}\mathbf{Mod}$ given by $I \otimes_R -$ is a category equivalence, since an inverse up to natural equivalence is given by $J \otimes_R-$.
In particular, $I \otimes_R -$ commutes with all limits, so it is exact, thus $I$ is flat as an $R$-module.
There's also a theorem that says that a module $M$ is finitely presented iff $M \otimes_R -$ commutes with infinite products, thus in our case $I$ is finitely presented.
Finally, finitely presented flat modules are projective.