I recently started learning about Brownian motions/Wiener processes. I was reading this post to understand what is the variance of the square of the increments of a Brownian motion. In the post, it is computed as
$$\text{Var}((W_t-W_s)^2) = \text{Var}(W_{t-s}^2) = \mathbb{E}\left[(W_{t-s}^2-(t-s))^2 \right] \stackrel{\ast}{=} (t-s)^2 \cdot \underbrace{\mathbb{E}((W_1^2-1)^2)}_{2} = 2(t-s)^2.$$
However, I don't understand what trick the person answering used to say directly that $\text{Var}((W_t-W_s)^2) = \text{Var}(W_{t-s}^2)$ and also $\mathbb{E}((W_1^2-1)^2) = 2$.