First of all, I'd like to mention "in my defense" that I'm actually a graduate student in physics, but I'm strictly related to math in terms of research area, then naturally, I realized that (in most cases) physicists get to learn some math concepts in a very superficial way.
Now let's get to what interests here. I had some contact with the idea of a tangent space $T_pM$ on a point over one n-dim manifold $M$, I also saw that in terms of a set of local coordinates $x^i$, we represent an element ${\bf v}\in T_pM$ as $\sum_{i=1}^{n}v_i\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}$, meaning that each symbol $\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i} \hspace{0,2cm} (i=1,2,\ldots, n)$ would represent something similar to those L.I. canonical vectors $e^1 = (1,0,\ldots,0), \ldots, e^n = (0, \ldots, 0, 1)$ in $\mathbb{R}^n$. In this last context, we'd say that an inner product between two vectors $v = (\alpha_1,\ldots,\alpha_n) = \sum_{i=1}^{n}\alpha_i e^{i}$ and $w = (\beta_1,\ldots,\beta_n) = \sum_{i=1}^{n}\beta_i e^{i}$ is numericaly correspondent to $\sum_{i=1}^{n}\alpha_i\beta_i$, not difficult to verify if we consider $\langle e^i, e^j\rangle = \delta_{ij}$. Now, by transposing this same ideia to a space where the vectors are represented as ${\bf v}$ above, could I say that $\nabla = \left(\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{1}},\ldots,\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{n}}\right)$ is analogous to something like $(1,\ldots, 1)$? I just suspect I can't exactly consider it, the reason is that this wondering came up after one specific paragraph of a paper which says (given a first order polynomial differential system):
"[...] where $\mathcal{X}$ is the vector field associated to the system (1), i.e. $$\mathcal{X} = P_1(x)\frac{\partial}{\partial x_1} + \ldots + P_n(x)\frac{\partial}{\partial x_n}.$$ As usually the divergence of the vector field is defined by $$\textrm{div}\mathcal{X} = \sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{\partial P_i}{\partial x_i}."$$
(From Liouvillian Integrability versus Darboux Polynomials - J. Llibre, C. Valls, X. Zhang)
Well, considering those observatios I mentioned, wouldn't $\langle \nabla, \mathcal{X}\rangle = \sum_{i=1}^{n} P_i$? There might be something I'm not taking into consideration, or maybe I'm trying to see some relation between unrelated things.
PS.: I vaguely remember hearing about $\nabla$ not being exactly a vector, but I never got it confirmed by myself. I also apologize for any breaches of mathematical rigor.
Firstly, let's address $\nabla$, which is the source of a lot of confusion. In vector calculus, one often does hear the phrase that the gradient "isn't a vector", and differential geometry makes this quite apparent. When we are given a smooth manifold $M$, we consider functions $f:M\to\mathbb{R}$. There is only one way to naturally define a derivative on such functions, and it is denoted by $d$, and is called the exterior derivative, or differential. In fact, for any map between smooth manifolds $F:X\to Y$, we can consider the differential $dF:TM\to TN$, and now we just take $N=\mathbb{R}$.
So we get $df:TM\to T\mathbb{R}=\mathbb{R}^2$. At the pointwise level, this means $df_p:T_pM\to T_{f(p)}\mathbb{R}=\mathbb{R}$, and this is a linear map of vector spaces. In other words, $df$ is a $1$-form: it it a linear function which, when given a vector field, gives you a function. Namely, when $X$ is a vector field on $M$, we get $df(X)=Xf$. In local coordinates where $X=\sum X^i\partial_i$, this is just $Xf=\sum X^i\partial_if$.
The gradient of $f$ is not $df$. In fact, the gradient of a function on a manifold cannot be canonically associated with the function $f$. First, one has to choose a Riemannian metric. That is, a pointwise inner product on the tangent spaces which varies smoothly. Then, one can define the gradient $\nabla f$ by the property that $g(\nabla f,Y)=df(Y)$ for all vector fields $Y$. You recover the gradient of vector calculus by taking $M=\mathbb{R}^n$ and taking the standard Euclidean metric. On a general manifold, there is no canonical notion of a gradient. But once you have chosen a metric, as well as local coordinates, you can represent the metric as an $n\times n$ matrix of functions $(g_{ij})$ with inverse matrix $(g^{ij})$. Then the gradient of $f$ is expressed as $\nabla f=\sum g^{ij}\frac{\partial f}{\partial x^i}\frac{\partial}{\partial x^j}$. So that is what the gradient is.
Consequently, it is not true that you can write "$\nabla=(1,\dots,1)$", in the way that you would like. The basis vectors $\partial_i$ depend only on the choice of coordinates, whereas $\nabla$ depends on an additional choice, namely the metric $g$. The criterion under which $\nabla f=(\partial_1f,\dots,\partial_nf)=\sum \partial_if\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}$ in local coordinates on a Riemannian manifold $(M,g)$, is precisely that the (inverse) metric $g$ in those coordinates satisfies $g^{ij}=\delta^{ij}$, i.e. that the coordinate patch $(U,g)$ is indistinguishable from flat Euclidean space.
I do not know what $\langle\nabla,\mathcal{X}\rangle$ is supposed to mean, without further context.