Let $A=E-I$, where $E$ is a square matrix made up entirely of $1$'s and where $I$ is the appropriate identity matrix. The following regarding $A$ is stated in my notes, but I am not sure how to show it and convince myself that it is true.
"$E$ has a zero eigenvalue of algebraic multiplicity $n-1$ (why?), so A has an eigenvalue of $-1$ with algebraic multiplicity $n-1$. Since $A\mathbf e=(n-1)\mathbf e$, the remaining eigenvalue is $n-1$."
How would you show that $E$ has an eigenvalue zero of algebraic multiplicity $n-1$? How does this then imply that $A$ has an eigenvalue of $-1$ with algebraic multiplicity $n-1$?
Where does the last statement "$A\mathbf e=(n-1)\mathbf e$" come from? Clearly, from this it can be deduced that the remaining eigenvalue, $\lambda=n-1$, but where did the statement come from in the first place?
The second identity $Ae = (n-1)e $ is a simple computation (do it!).
For the first question, note that $v_j = e_1 - e_j $ (with $j=2,\dots,n $) is in the kernel of $E $, where $e_i $ is the ith element of the standard basis. Since all these vectors are linearly independent, the dimension of the kernel of $E $ (the algebraic multiplicity of the eigenvalue $0$) is at least $n-1$. If it were $n $, the kernel would be everything, i.e. $E=0$. Since this is clearly not the case, the dimension is $n-1$.
To see what this implies about the algebraic multiplicity of the eigenvalue $-1$ of $A $, think about what happens for an eigenvector of $E $ if you apply $A $ to it (and vice versa)