The injectivity of $f\mapsto f\circ v$ on $\hom(M'',N)$ implies that $v$ is surjective

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I'm an undergrad getting familiar with some notions of commutative algebra by reading Atiyah-McDonald. On the exact sequences part, a part of the proof of (2.9) is proving that if $\hom(M'',N)\xrightarrow{\overline{v}}$ is injective for all $N$ (where $\overline{v}(f)=f\circ v)$ then $v$ is surjective.

Any idea on how to prove this? Atiyah makes it seem obvious, I don't see why.