Operads are a nice framework to model all kinds of different algebras, i.e.
- Monoids are algebras over the operad Assoc in the category of sets
- Associative algebras are algebras over the operad Assoc in the category of k-vector spaces
- Topological monoids are algebras over the operad Assoc in the category of topological spaces
Working with symmetric operads, the $j$-ary operations Assoc(j) in the operad Assoc are given by the "free thing in the base category" generated by the symmetric group in $j$ letters $\Sigma_j$, e.g.
- Assoc(j) in the category of sets is $\Sigma_j$ with the canonical $\Sigma_j$-action
- Assoc(j) in the category of $k$-vector spaces is the free vector space generated by $\Sigma_j$ with the canonical $\Sigma_j$-action
- Assoc(j) in the category of topological spaces is $\Sigma_j$ with the discrete topology and the canonical $\Sigma_j$-action
Mostly, there is also the notion of a module over an algebra, i.e.
- A module over a monoid $M$ is a $M$-set
- A module over an associative algebra $A$ is an $A$-module
- A module over a topological monoid $M$ is a space with an $M$-action
Here, we have the choice of either considering left- or right-modules.
How can we model the notion of a (left or right) module over an algebra in the language of operads?
Searching for "module over an algebra over an operad", I found the following definition here:
Let $O$ be a symmetric operad and $A$ an algebra over $O$. A module over $A$ is an object $M$ in the base category together with maps $$O(j)\otimes A^{j-1}\otimes M\rightarrow M,$$ which satisfies certain associativity, unitality and equivariance conditions.
At first glance, this seems suitable for my needs, but I get confused even plugging in the basic examples mentioned above. For a monoid $A$ considered as an algebra over the operad Assoc, I expected the corresponding modules to be left $A$-sets, so let $M$ be such a gadget. We are in the need of maps $$\Sigma_j\times A^{j-1}\times M\rightarrow M.$$ If I had to define this map just on $\Sigma_{j-1}$, the obvious choice would be to map $(\sigma,a_1,\ldots,a_{j-1},m)$ to $(a_{\sigma(1)}\ldots a_{\sigma(j-1)})\cdot m$, but the fact that the map should be defined on $\sigma_j$ suggests that we also should be able to multiply elements from $A$ to $M$ on the right, so I expect the corresponding notion to be something like a set with an action of $A$ on both sides, i.e. a "bimodule" instead of just a left (or right) module.
Can someone clarify my confusion?
The point here is that you don't have to precise the action of $\Sigma_j$
$f:\Sigma_j\times A^{j-1}\times M\rightarrow M$, it just a map which associates to an element $(\sigma,a_1,..,a_{j-1},m)$ an element $f(\sigma,a_1,...,a_{j-1},m)$ of $M$. You don't have to figure out the action $\sigma.(a_1,..,a_{j-1},m)$ here, the role of $\Sigma_j$ appears in the compatibility diagram:
for example $f(\sigma,a_1,a_2,a_3,m)=a_1(a_2(a_3.m))$ in the definition you don't precise how is acting $\Sigma_j$.
What May precises in the definition here is the action of $\Sigma_j$ in the compatibility diagram. In this case you take $j_1+j_2=3$, so you take elements $s_3\in \Sigma_3$, $s_1\in \Sigma_1, s_2\in \Sigma_2$ then for the first downarrow of the compatibility diagram you you associate to $(s_3,(s_2,a_3,a_2),(s_1,a_1),m)$ an element $(s_3,a_{32}',a_1,',m)$ where $a_{32}'$ is defined by $\Sigma_2\times A_2\rightarrow A_2$.