Problem and Definitions
If $n_a!:=n(n-a)(n-2a)(n-3a)\ldots(n-ka):n>ka$, how should I go about solving this?: $$\dfrac{72_8!}{18_2!}=4^x$$
Attempt
$$\dfrac{72(72-8)(72-16)(72-24)(72-32)(72-40)(72-48)(72-56)(72-64)}{18(18-2)(18-4)(18-6)(18-8)(18-10)(18-12)(18-14)(18-16)}=4^x$$ which is then simplified into (execution) $$\dfrac{72(64)(56)(48)(40)(32)(24)(16)(8)}{18(16)(14)(12)(10)(8)(6)(4)(2)}=4^x$$ Now we see there is a bijective function from the multiplicands; $72=18\times 4$, $56=14\times 4$, $64=16\times 4$, $56=14\times 4$, $48=14\times 4$... So we can simplify to, by dividing each top be the bottom: $$\dfrac{4(4)(4)(4)(4)(4)(4)(4)(4)}{1}=4^x$$ to $$4^24^24^24^24^1=4^x$$ to $$4^{2+2+2+2+1}=4^x$$ then to $$4^{9}=4^x.$$ From this, we can obviously see that $x=9$.
Question
Am I correct in assuming that there is a bijective function between every dividend and divisor? And, am I also correct in taking each dividend and dividing it by its respective divisor? Generally, is this 'proof' correct?
Your reasoning is fine. You don't need a bijective function. What you are doing is dividing the numerator and denominator by the same amount a bunch of times. As you say, this is made easier because you can divide each factor in order by the other, resulting in a quotient of $4$, then just count up the factors of $4$.