For all $t\geq0$, $x>0$, we have the following important equality: \begin{equation} \lim_{\lambda\rightarrow\infty}e^{-\lambda t}\sum_{k\leq\lambda x}\frac{(\lambda t)^k}{k!}=\chi_{[0,x)}(t)+\frac{1}{2}\chi_{\{x\}}(t), \end{equation} where $\chi$ is the characteristic function. Actually, I can prove this equality with the help of the Poisson distribution, but I prefer to prove this equality by a basic analysis method. I've struggled with this problem for a few days, still have no idea.
I'll appreciate it for any hints! Thanks for any help!
Partial answer: Suppose $t\in[0,x)$, then we want to show the limit on the left hand side of the equation is $1$. Writing it out, $$e^{-\lambda t}\sum_{k\leq\lambda x}\frac{(\lambda t)^k}{k!} = e^{-\lambda t}\left(e^{\lambda t}-\sum_{k >\lambda x}\frac{(\lambda t)^k}{k!}\right)=1-e^{-\lambda t}\sum_{k >\lambda x}\frac{(\lambda t)^k}{k!},$$ so we just need to show the second term goes to zero as $\lambda\to\infty$. Let $k_0=\lfloor\lambda x\rfloor+1$ be the first term that occurs in the sum. Then we have the bound $$\begin{split}e^{-\lambda t}\sum_{k >\lambda x}\frac{(\lambda t)^k}{k!}&<e^{-\lambda t}\frac{(\lambda t)^{k_0}}{k_0!}\left(1+\frac{\lambda t}{k_0}+\frac{(\lambda t)^2}{k_0^2}+\cdots\right)\\&=e^{-\lambda t}\frac{(\lambda t)^{k_0}}{k_0!}\frac{1}{1-\lambda t/k_0}\\&\sim e^{-\lambda t}\frac{(\lambda t)^{\lambda x}}{(\lambda x)!}\frac{1}{1-t/x}\end{split}$$ where we can treat $t,x$ as constant in this confusing expression. From here, I think using Stirling's approximation for $(\lambda x)!$ should finish the job, and the other cases $t=x$ and $t>x$ should be similar (though I haven't written out the details).