In the book of Topology by Munkres, it is given at page 149 that
However, what does the author mean by the fact that $0$ is the common limit point of the two open sets in $Y$ does not matter ?, and how can this be ? I mean isn't this a contradiction to lemma 23.1 ?


$A=[-1,0)$, $0$ is a limit point of $A$, but $B=(0,1]$ does not contain the limit point: $0\notin B$.
Similarly, $0$ is a limit point of $B$, but $A$ does not contain it.
No contradiction is involved.