I'm doing the preparation to an exam, and I'm stuck in the following:
If $R$ is a Noetherian ring with zero nilradical ($N(R) = 0$), and $S$ is the set of regular elements of $R$ ($r \in S$ if $rs = 0 \Rightarrow s = 0$) then $S^{-1}R$ is Artinian.
First, is easy to check that S is a multiplicative system, and the non-zero elements of $S^{-1}R$ are either units or zero-divisors. If one can show that the zero-divisors were nilpotents it will be over because that means that $S^{-1}R/N(R)= S^{-1}R $ is a field. But I don't know that is the case, since I can't prove this.
I tryed to show that if $P$ is prime ideal then $P$ should be maximal, by showing that $S^{-1}R/P$ is a field, but I can't do this too.
Any help will be welcome.
Thank you!
$S^{-1}R$ is noetherian, reduced ($N(S^{-1}R)=0$), and every element of $S^{-1}R$ is a zerodivisor or invertible. Now your question follows from the following result:
Let $\{\mathfrak p_1,\dots,\mathfrak p_n\}$ be the set of minimal primes of $A$. Since $A$ is reduced we have $(0)=\bigcap_{i=1}^n\mathfrak p_i$. Let $\mathfrak p$ be a prime ideal of $A$, and $x\in\mathfrak p$, $x\ne 0$. Then $x$ is a zerodivisor, hence there is $y\ne 0$ such that $xy=0$. In particular, $xy\in\mathfrak p_i$ for all $i=1,\dots,n$. If $x\notin\mathfrak p_i$ for all $i=1,\dots,n$, then $y\in\bigcap_{i=1}^n\mathfrak p_i$, so $y=0$, a contradiction. This shows that there is an $i$ such that $x\in \mathfrak p_i$. It follows that $\mathfrak p\subseteq\bigcup_{i=1}^n\mathfrak p_i$. By the prime avoidance lemma we get $\mathfrak p\subseteq\mathfrak p_i$ for some $i$, that is, $\mathfrak p=\mathfrak p_i$, and we are done.