Numerical integration suggests that $$\mathcal U=\int_0^\pi\int_0^\pi\int_0^\pi\arccos\left(\cos x\cdot\cos y+\sin x\cdot\sin y\cdot\cos z\right) dx dy dz\stackrel{\small\color{gray}?}=\frac{\pi^4}2\tag1$$ (note that the function being integrated represents the great-circle distance$^{[1]}$$\!^{[2]}$$\!^{[3]}$ in spherical coordinates).
How can we prove it?
Is it possible to find a closed form for this one? $$\mathcal W=\int_0^{\tfrac\pi2}\!\int_0^\pi\int_0^\pi\arccos\left(\cos x\cdot\cos y+\sin x\cdot\sin y\cdot\cos z\right) dx dy dz\tag2$$
$$\mathcal U=\int_0^\pi\int_0^\pi\int_0^\pi\arccos\left(\cos x\cos y+\sin x\sin y\cos z\right) dx dy dz$$ $$\overset{\large {x\to\pi -x \atop \large z\to\pi-z}}=\int_0^\pi\int_0^\pi\int_0^\pi\left(\pi-\arccos\left(\cos x\cos y+\sin x\sin y\cos z\right)\right) dx dy dz$$ $$\Rightarrow 2\mathcal U=\pi \int_0^\pi\int_0^\pi\int_0^\pi dxdydz\Rightarrow \mathcal U=\frac{\pi^4}{2}$$
The original integral can be evaluated by symmetry since $\cos(\pi-a)=-\cos a$ (it is crucial to have the $z$ bounds from $0$ to $\pi$ in order to achieve this). However, in the second integral the upper bound is $\frac{\pi}{2}$, therefore this symmetry doesn't work.