Note on Terminology
$\operatorname{K}(m)$ and $\operatorname{E}(m)$ are Complete Elliptic Integral functions of, respectively, the 1st and 2nd kind. Here I use the same convention as Wolfram Alpha in defining the parameter $m = k^2$ such that... $$\operatorname{K}(m) =\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\text{d}\theta}{\sqrt{1-m\sin^2\theta}} =\frac{\pi}{2}\sum_{n=0}^\infty \left( \frac{(2n)!}{2^{2n}(n!)^2}\right)^2m^n, $$ and $$\operatorname{E}(m) =\int_0^{\pi/2} \sqrt{1-m\sin^2\theta}~\text{d}\theta =\frac{\pi}{2}\sum_{n=0}^\infty \left( \frac{(2n)!}{2^{2n}(n!)^2}\right)^2\frac{m^n}{1-2n}. $$
Context
In a recent question about the force exerted by a circular ring on an external co-planar point three solutions were presented. All three solutions appear to give the same result (checked by numerical calculations over a range of $0<=x<=1$).
The Gauss Transformation, applied to $\operatorname{K}()$ (Complete Elliptic Integrals of the 1st kind) functions, goes some way to explaining the equivalence of the three solutions.
$$ \frac{1}{\left(1-x\right)}\operatorname{K}\left(\frac{-4x }{ \left(1 - x\right)^2 }\right) = \operatorname{K}\left( \left(-x\right)^2 \right) = \operatorname{K}\left( \left(+x\right)^2 \right) = \frac{1}{\left(1+x\right)}\operatorname{K}\left(\frac{+4x }{ \left(1 + x\right)^2 }\right). $$
But it also seems that there is a similar identity involving $\operatorname{E}()$ (Complete Elliptic Integrals of the 2nd kind) functions. This identity also involves the $\operatorname{K}()$ function.
$$ {f(x):~} (1-x ) ~\operatorname{E}~\left(\frac{-4x }{ \left(1 - x\right)^2 }\right)$$ $$= {g(x):~} 2\operatorname{E}\left(x^2\right)+(x^2-1)\operatorname{K}\left(x^2\right) $$ $$= {h(x):~} (1+x ) ~\operatorname{E}~\left(\frac{+4x }{ \left(1 + x\right)^2 }\right). $$ [Equation $g(x)$ was corrected to replace $-(1+x)$ by $+(x^2-1)$ as multiplier of $K(x^2)$].
Update 1
Using WolframAlpha gives for the Taylor Series expansion (at $x=0$) of the middle expression (denoted $g$ by /u/Claude Leibovici) :-
$$ g = 2\operatorname{E}(x^2)-(1-x^2)\operatorname{K}(x^2) = \frac{\pi }{2}+\frac{\pi x^2}{8}+\frac{\pi x^4}{128} +\frac{\pi x^6}{512} +\frac{25\pi x^8}{32678} +O\left(x^9\right) $$
which agrees (as far as the actual terms displayed) with the Taylor Expansions of the other two expression ($f$ and $h$) presented in the answer by /u/Claude Leibovici.
Update 2
The following SEMaths question (by /u/jnm2) and answer (by /u/J.M.is a poor mathematician) Identity for complete elliptic integral of the second kind addresses one of the identities which I have asked about ($f$ = $h$):- $$ |1-x | ~\operatorname{E}~\left(\frac{-4x }{ \left(1 - x\right)^2 }\right) = 2\operatorname{E}\left(x^2\right)+(x^2-1)\operatorname{K}\left(x^2\right) = |1+x | ~\operatorname{E}~\left(\frac{+4x }{ \left(1 + x\right)^2 }\right). $$ Note the terms $|1+x|$ and $|1-x|$ are absolutes.
Quote from that answer:
"...the complete elliptic integral of the second kind satisfies the imaginary modulus identity ... specialized here to the complete case, $\phi=\pi/2$:
$$E(-m)=\sqrt{1+m}\,E\left(\frac{m}{1+m}\right)"$$
Oustanding Question
[Upated following learning that $f(x)=h(x)$ is demonstrated elsewhere].
Show that the conjectured identity $ g(x) = h(x) $ ... $$ 2\operatorname{E}\left(x^2\right)+(x^2-1)\operatorname{K}\left(x^2\right) = {h:~} (1+x ) ~\operatorname{E}~\left(\frac{+4x }{ \left(1 + x\right)^2 }\right), $$
( or its equivalent $g(x) = f(x)$) $$ 2\operatorname{E}\left(x^2\right)+(x^2-1)\operatorname{K}\left(x^2\right) = {h:~} (1-x ) ~\operatorname{E}~\left(\frac{-4x }{ \left(1 - x\right)^2 }\right). $$ is true.
Update 3
User /u/user reports that the $g(x)$ series in powers of $x$ is also given by the formula... $$g(x) = \frac{\pi}{2}\sum_{n=0}^\infty \left( \frac{(2n)!}{2^{2n}(n!)^2}\frac{}{2n-1}\right)^2x^{2n}. $$
Update 4
Below is a table of some initial power series terms for each term in $h(x)$ and $g(x)$. (NB The arguments in $E(k)$ and $K(k)$ conform to "wikipedia convention" rather than "WolframAlpha convention" which would be $E(m)$ and $K(m)$ where $m=k^2$).
Note how the odd-power terms in $h(x)$ cancel to zero and how $g(x)$ does not have any odd-power terms. For every power term, the sums of $h(x)$ and $g(x)$ are equal.
(Links to Wolfram Alpha expansions: $h(x)_1$, $h(x)_2$, $g(x)_1$, $g(x)_2$, $g(x)_3$.)
\begin{array}{|Term|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|} \hline h(x)_1 & +1E(\gamma_x) & \frac{1\pi x^0}{2}& \frac{-1\pi x^1}{2}& \frac{+5\pi x^2}{8}& \frac{-5\pi x^3}{8}& \frac{+81\pi x^4}{128}& \frac{-81\pi x^5}{128}& \frac{+325\pi x^6}{512}& \frac{-325\pi x^7}{512} & \frac{+20825\pi x^8}{32768} & \frac{-20825\pi x^9}{32768} & \frac{+83349\pi x^{10}}{131072} & \\ \hline h(x)_2 & +xE(\gamma_x) & & \frac{+1\pi x^1}{2}& \frac{-1\pi x^2}{2}& \frac{+5\pi x^3}{8}& \frac{-5\pi x^4}{8}& \frac{+81\pi x^5}{128}& \frac{-81\pi x^6}{128}& \frac{+325\pi x^7}{512} & \frac{-325\pi x^8}{512} & \frac{+20825\pi x^9}{32768} & \frac{-20825\pi x^{10}}{32768} & \\ \hline h(x) & SUM & \frac{1\pi x^0}{2}& 0 & \frac{+1\pi x^2}{8}& 0 & \frac{+1\pi x^4}{128}& 0 & \frac{+1\pi x^6}{512}& 0 & \frac{+25\pi x^8}{32768} & 0 & \frac{+49\pi x^{10}}{131072} & \\ \hline g(x)_1 & -1K(x) & \frac{-1\pi x^0}{2}& 0 & \frac{-1\pi x^2}{8}& 0 & \frac{-9\pi x^4}{128}& 0 & \frac{-25\pi x^6}{512}& 0 & \frac{-1225\pi x^8}{32768}& 0 & \frac{-3969\pi x^{10}}{131072}& \\ \hline g(x)_2 & +x^2 K(x) & 0 & 0 & \frac{+1\pi x^2}{2}& 0 & \frac{+1\pi x^4}{8}& 0 & \frac{+9\pi x^6}{128}& 0 & \frac{+25\pi x^8}{512}& 0 & \frac{+1225\pi x^{10}}{32768}& \\ \hline g(x)_3 & +2 E(x) & \frac{2\pi x^0}{2}& 0 & \frac{-2\pi x^2}{8}& 0 & \frac{-6\pi x^4}{128}& 0 & \frac{-10\pi x^6}{512}& 0 & \frac{-350\pi x^8}{32768}& 0 & \frac{-882\pi x^{10}}{131072}& \\ \hline g(x) & SUM & \frac{1\pi x^0}{2}& 0 & \frac{+1\pi x^2}{8}& 0 & \frac{+1\pi x^4}{128}& 0 & \frac{+1\pi x^6}{512}& 0 & \frac{+25\pi x^8}{32768}& 0 & \frac{+49\pi x^{10}}{131072}& \\ \hline \end{array}
To me, there is a problem somewhere with the term in the middle.
Considering $$f=(1-x) E\left(-\frac{4 x}{(1-x)^2}\right)$$ $$g=2 E\left(x^2\right)-(x+1) K\left(x^2\right)$$ $$h=(1+x) E\left(\frac{4 x}{(1+x)^2}\right)$$
Being lazy, I just computed the Taylor series $$f=\frac{\pi }{2}+\frac{\pi x^2}{8}+\frac{\pi x^4}{128}+\frac{\pi x^6}{512}+O\left(x^7\right)$$ $$g=\frac{\pi }{2}-\frac{\pi x}{2}-\frac{3 \pi x^2}{8}-\frac{\pi x^3}{8}-\frac{15 \pi x^4}{128}-\frac{9 \pi x^5}{128}-\frac{35 \pi x^6}{512}+O\left(x^7\right)$$ $$h=\frac{\pi }{2}+\frac{\pi x^2}{8}+\frac{\pi x^4}{128}+\frac{\pi x^6}{512}+O\left(x^7\right)$$ So $f=h\neq g$.
Edit
The above was written before the edit of the post.
If $$g=2E(x^2)-(1-x^2)K(x^2)$$ the story is totally different since the expansion gives $$g=\frac{\pi }{2}+\frac{\pi x^2}{8}+\frac{\pi x^4}{128}+\frac{\pi x^6}{512}+O\left(x^7\right)$$ making the statement to be true.