Trying to prove that geometric and algebraic interpretations of the dot product are equal.

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I am a Classics major trying to teach myself physics. I am on summer vacation at the moment, and I am going through a book called Classical Mechanics by J. Taylor. I am on the first chapter, and I need help with a question from the end of chapter 1.

Thank you, in advance. Please let me know if I should make any edits to the question.

Here is the question at hand.

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I am having difficulty even showing that it is true for 2-D vectors. I would ask you to not provide an answer, but maybe some direction.

When trying to show for 2-D: $r \cdot s = (r_1^2 + r_2^2)^{1/2} \times (s_1^2 + s_2^2)^{1/2} \times \cos(\theta_{rs}) = r_1 \cdot s_1 + r_2\cdot s_2$

I tried squaring both sides. Which seems like it may be the right step forward. However, I had difficulty with trying to understand what to do with "$\cos(\theta_{rs})$." There is the suggestion to make our coordinate system such that vector-$r$ is aligned with the $x$-axis. Does that make $\cos(\theta_{rs})= {|s|\over s_1}$? It would seem like this would only be the case if $|s| > |r|$. Moreover, would this not make the component $r_2 = 0$, since the only component necessary to define vector-r in our coordinate system be $r_1$?

I feel like I may be overlooking something – maybe not so large. Some direction would be nice, but please, again, do not give me the answer!

Thank you very much for your patience and consideration.

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Let's tackle the 3D case. Let $\theta$ be the angle formed by vector $\vec s$ with the $z$-axis, and $\phi$ be the angle formed by the projection of $\vec s$ onto the $xy$-plane with the $x$-axis. Then geometry tells us that: $$ \vec s=(s\sin\theta\cos\phi, s\sin\theta\sin\phi, s\cos\theta), $$ where, as usual, we set $s=|\vec s|$.

Let's (nearly) follow your book suggestion: take $\vec r$ along the $z$-axis, so that $\vec r=(0,0,r)$. You immediately obtain: $$ r_xs_x+r_ys_y+r_zs_z=rs\cos\theta, $$ where $\theta$ is the angle between $\vec s$ and $z$-axis, which is the same as the angle between $\vec s$ and $\vec r$.

But of course this proof works only if you show that dot product defined by (1.7) is independent of the choice of axes.