Suppose that $X_1$ and $X_2$ have the same distribution. Then, $$\phi_{t X_1} (1) = \phi_{X_1}(t) = \phi_{X_2}(t) = \phi_{t X_2} (1).$$
Why do $tX_1$ and $tX_2$ have the same distribution or how to show that $\phi_{t X_1} = \phi_{t X_2}$? How can we use the concept of characteristic function to write a proof for that?
For any $u\in\mathbb R$ $$\phi_{tX_1}(u)=\phi_{X_1}(tu)=\phi_{X_2}(tu)=\phi_{tX_2}(u),$$ so $tX_1$ and $tX_2$ have the same characteristic function and therefore the same distribution.