There are many kinds of metrics that can induce the topology of convergences in measure. Two most common metrics are
$ d(f,g) := \inf_{\delta > 0} \big(\mu(|f-g|>\delta) + \delta\big) $
- Here is the second one, which is the most common.
$ d(f,g) = \int \frac{|f-g|}{1+ |f-g|}d\mu $
I have three questions:
Q1 I am trying to prove the Triangle inequality of the first metric. I have done so far:
$ \mu\left\{ x\in X:\left|f\left(x\right)-g\left(x\right)\right|>\delta\right\} +\delta \le \mu\left\{ x\in X:\left|f\left(x\right)-h\left(x\right)\right|>\frac{\delta}{2}\right\} +\frac{\delta}{2}+\mu\left\{ x\in X:\left|h\left(x\right)-g\left(x\right)\right|>\frac{\delta}{2}\right\} +\frac{\delta}{2} $
But I have no idea what to do next.
Q2 What is the difference between the two metrics? Both metrics can induce the topology of convergence in measure. As far as I am concerned, the second metric is used only in probability contexts or in the case the measure is finite. I wonder whether this statement is right. If it is true, what's wrong with the second metric when the measure is not finite?
Q3 Given a measure space $\left(X,\mathscr{F},\mu\right)$ and let $L^{0}\left(X,\mathscr{F},\mu\right)$ be the vector space of all real-valued measurable functions on $\left(X,\mathscr{F},\mu\right)$. If both metrics can be defined on $L^{0}\left(X,\mathscr{F},\mu\right)$, are the topologies of these two spaces the same?
Can anyone help me out? Thanks in advance.
Q1: let $A=d(f,h)$ and $B=d(h,g)$. Let $\epsilon >0$. Then there exist $\delta_1 >0$ and $\delta_2 >0$ such that $\mu(|f-h| >\delta_1)+\delta_1 <A+\epsilon$ and $\mu(|h-g| >\delta_2)+\delta_2 <B+\epsilon$. Note that $|f-g| >\delta_1+\delta_2$ implies that either $|f-h| >\delta_1$ or $|h-g| >\delta_2$. Hence $d(f,g) \leq \mu(|f-g| >\delta_1+\delta_2\leq A+B+2\epsilon$. Since $\epsilon$ is arbitrary we get $d(f,g) \leq d(f,h)+d(h,g)$.
If $\mu$ is not finite it is not true that all bounded measurable functions are integrable. The second definition cannot be used for infinite measures since metrics cannot take the value $\infty$.
For a finite measure both metrics yield the same topology since $f_n \to f$ in one metric iff $f_n \to f$ in the other.