I have this exercise where I want to check my solutions. Can someone help me?
Let $u_1$ and $u_2$ be elements of $V$. If $1 + 1 ≠ 0$ in $K$, then the family $u_1, u_2$ is linearly independent if and only if the family $u_1 + u_2, u_1 − u_2$ is linearly independent.
So what I have done is
For $\Rightarrow$
$\alpha u_1+ \beta u_2=0 \Rightarrow \alpha = \beta=0$ so if we take for $\alpha=(a+b)$ and $\beta=(a-b)$ it becomes $(a+b) u_1+ (a-b) u_2=0 \Rightarrow (a+b) = (a-b)=0$
so $a+b=0$ and $a-b=0$ are linearly independent which means that for $a+b=0$ and $a-b=0$ we have that $a=b=0$.
So with a little bit of transformations we have $a(u_1+u_2)+b(u_1-u_2)=0 \Rightarrow a=b=0$
For $\Leftarrow$
I have $a(u_1+u_2)+b(u_1-u_2)=0 \Rightarrow u_1(a+b)+u_2(a-b)=0$ and as before with $\alpha=(a+b)$ and $\beta=(a-b)$ we have $u_1 \alpha +u_2\beta=0 \Rightarrow \alpha=\beta=0$
Everything right?
Your correct computations may be summarised by considering the transformation matrix, within the generated subspace, from $\,\{u_1, u_2\}\,$ to $\,\{u_1- u_2, u_1+ u_2\}\,$: $$\begin{pmatrix}1&1\\-1&1 \end{pmatrix}^{-1} \;=\; \frac12 \begin{pmatrix}1&-1\\1&1 \end{pmatrix}$$ If $1 + 1 ≠ 0$ in $K$, then determinants are non-zero, and the preceding matrix inversion is possible and correct.