I'm checking some notes in measure and integration theory, and found this statement:
$E(1_{[X>n]}) = P[X>n]$
Just need to understand it.
Is this the correct interpretation? Please need some advise.
I think $E(1_{[X>n]}) = \int_{X>n} dP $.
But I'm not able to link this integral to $P[X>n]$.
Thanks!
If you write out the expectation:
$$\int 1_{X>n} dP_X = \int_{X\leq n} 1_{X>n} dP_X + \int_{X>n} 1_{X>n} dP_X = \int_{X\leq n} 0\; dP_X + \int_{X>n} 1 dP_X = P_X((n,\infty))$$
You see that you are only integrating over the set where $X>n$, the rest of the domain of the probability measure is zeroed out by the indicator function.