I have an exercise which reads like this:
A hospital has a statistic about how many boys and girls are born. 40% of all newborns are female, the others are male. Calculate the probability for the next baby to be male and for the next two newborns to have differing sexes.
My confusion is about whether or not this is an "urne experiment" with or without putting the balls back into the urn after one draw. Obviously, one birth will not affect the next one. On the other hand, I get the feeling, that if one assumes the statistic to be correct, I can expect that after a male baby is born that it is ever so slightly less probable that the next one will be male, that is with $< 60\%$ probability.
Edit
Some clarification about what I am confused about in response to @lulu's comment:
That is true, also from a purely biological/physics standpoint. However, I was wondering about whether mathematically removing the ball after the first draw makes a statement about how reliable the statistic is. Suppose there are 10 children born in succession, all boys. It does not become more "probable" that a girl is born with the next birth, because "probability does not have a memory" - i.e. the sex is determined purely random. On the other hand one can argue, that after 10 boys it should be more likely that a girl is born, since otherwise the statistics would not add up in the long run.