Use De Morgan's laws for sets and induction to prove that $$D-(A_1 \cup A_2 \cup ...\cup A_n)=(D-A_1)\cap(D-A_2)\cap...\cap(D-A_n)$$
I am familiar with De Morgan's laws and understand the distribution through sets but applying that and induction is throwing off. to start obviously the starting case is trivial but then to prove k+1 is where i am struggling.
For the inductive step:
$$D-(A_1 \cup A_2 \cup ... \cup A_k \cup A_{k+1}) =$$ ( definition - for set)
$$ D \cap (A_1 \cup ... \cup A_{k+1})^C=$$ (De Morgan)
$$ D \cap A_1^C \cap ... \cap A_{k+1}^C=$$ ($D = D \cap D)
$$ D \cap A_1^C \cap ... \cap D \cap A_k^C \cap D \cap A_{k+1}^C =$$ (definition - for sets)
$$ (D -A_1) \cap (D-A_2)... \cap (D-A_{k+1})$$
OK, so that isn't using the inductive hypothesis, ans indeed you really don't need induction for this at all, but it is an inductive proof (once you add the base case)