Prove that: $$\phi \vee (\psi_{1} \wedge ...\wedge \psi_{n}) = (\phi \vee \psi_{1})\wedge ... \wedge (\phi \vee \psi_{n}).$$
I think the induction may be the ordinary induction and not course of values induction, right?
thanks.
2026-02-23 06:36:24.1771828584
Use induction to prove the generalized Distributive laws.
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