Using the IVP definition of $\cos$ and $\sin$, how can we show that $\cos^2(x)+\sin^2(x) = 1$ without any "magic"?

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One way to define the exponential, hyperbolic and circular functions is to assert that they're the unique solutions to certain IVP systems:

The exponential function:

$$\exp'(x) = \exp(x), \qquad \exp(0) = 1$$

Hyperbolic functions:

$$\cosh'(x) = \sinh(x)$$

$$\sinh'(x) = \cosh(x)$$

$$\cosh(0) = 1$$

$$\sinh(0) = 0$$

The circular functions:

$$\cos'(x) = -\sin(x)$$

$$\sin'(x) = \cos(x)$$

$$\cos(0) = 1$$

$$\sin(0) = 0$$

Question. Using the IVP definition of $\cos$ and $\sin$, how can we show that $\cos^2(x)+\sin^2(x) = 1$?

I'm looking for a satisfying proof that I can present to young people, so:

  • no complex numbers, and
  • no power series, and, more generally
  • no "magic"!

In fact, the closer the proof is to being "just plain algebra", the better.

Motivation.

There's a geometric way of defining the circular functions: first, position yourself at $(1,0)$ on the unit circle. Then start walking anticlockwise at unit speed. It follows that if the time elapsed is $t$, your $x$-coordinate will be $\cos t$ and your $y$-coordinate will be $\sin t$.

The above information can be organized into four statements:

  1. We walk on the unit circle centered at the origin.

  2. We position ourselves at $(1,0)$ to begin with.

  3. We walk at unit speed.

  4. We walk anticlockwise.

These can be formalized as follows:

  1. $\cos^2 t + \sin^2 t = 1$
  2. $\cos(0) = 1, \sin(0) = 0$
  3. $(\cos't)^2+(\sin't)^2 = 1$
  4. $\sin'(0) > 0$

Now conditions 2 and 4 follow easily from the IVP definition. Furthermore, if we can show 1, then 3 follows easily. But, I haven't been able to show 1 in a "non-magic way" e.g. without complex numbers.