I help mentor some really young, bright kids in mathematics. We were looking at geometric properties of various shapes, and one of the kids noted that the surface area of a sphere $S = 4\pi r^2$ contains the equation for the area of a circle $A = \pi r^2$.
She was a bit confused why the factor of $4$ was mysteriously there. I told her I'd get back to her.
I know how to prove the formula using calculus, but I spent a long time trying to find an elementary way of doing it.
Does anyone know of a way of proving the first equation using almost no advanced mathematics$^1$? This seems unlikely, so as a separate question, does anyone know of a good visualization to show the relation between $S$ and $A$?
The naive approach of taking four circles and showing you can "place them" on a sphere is clearly wrong (you can't just place four circles on a sphere), but I'm not sure what the alternative is.
$^1$These kids have a working knowledge of variable manipulation, basic geometry, and I guess combinatorics?


I think the idea of trying to do this without calculus is misguided. Instead, try to understand the steps in the calculus. The surface area formula is derived from the volume formula so maybe the question should be: can I get the volume formula from the formula for circle area $A_c=\pi r^2$? First, break down the sphere into disks (centered on the x-axis). Then using cylinder volumes we have: $$V=\int_{-r}^{r}\pi(r^2-x^2)dx=\frac{4}{3}\pi r^3$$ We can do this because for cylinder volume $V=\pi R^2h$ where $h$ is height $R=y$ and so $R^2=y^2=r^2-x^2$. To understand how this relates to the surface area consider the end of the FTC proof, which goes like this: $$\frac{dA}{dx}=y$$ $$dA=y·dx$$ $$A=\int y·dx$$ where $A$ is the area function for $y$. Comparing the above equation to the previous integral we can see that we should be able to differentiate $V$ to produce something equivalent to $y$ i.e. something that encompasses and spatially defines itself. What could that be for the volume? It would have to be the surface area!