One of the very first notions one encounters when introduced to total differentials $\text{d}f$ is the notion of exactness, that is the property of $f(x,y)$ that in $$\text{d}f=\frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial x}\text{d}x + \frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial y}\text{d}y$$ we have $$ \tag{$\spadesuit$} \frac{\partial}{\partial y}\left(\frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial x}\right)=\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left(\frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial y}\right). $$ Now we can interpret in the above $\text{d}f$ as a scalar product of the gradient $\vec{\nabla}f$ with $\text{d}\vec{r}=(\text{d}x,\text{d}y)$ and so the integrability condition $(\spadesuit)$ reads as an equality of the directional derivatives of the gradient along the $x$ and $y$ axes.
This means if we were to plot the gradient of $f$ as a vector field, it should be symmetric under reflections along the diagonal $x=y$. These reflections are displayed by red lines in the following.
As an example, take $\text{d}f=\cos(x)\sin(y)\text{d}x-\sin(x)\cos(y)\text{d}y$, which is not exact:

Compare with $\text{d}f=\sin(x)\cos(y)\text{d}x+\cos(x)\sin(y)\text{d}y$, which is exact:
Now, assuming the above interpretation is correct, is there a nice way to see in the vector field plot the following two things:
- Whether $\oint_C \text{d}f$ will be $=0$ in the exact and $\neq0$ in the inexact case? So, is it possible to gain a hint as to the exactness of a given $\text{d}f$ from the visualization alone?${}^{[1]}$
- How an integrating factor $\mu(x,y)$ should look like, so that ($\spadesuit$) holds for $\mu\cdot \text{d}f$ if it doesn't for $\text{d}f$?
${}^{[1]}:$ Apart from those cases where $\oint_C \text{d}f \neq 0$ even for exact differentials, where because of terms like $\frac{1}{x^2+y^2}$ we have to exclude certain points, which lead to singularities that change the closed loop integral when integrated around them.
Your statement
and the associated picture with the red diagonal line, suggests that the exactness of a differential is dependent only on its values at or near the diagonal, which is completely untrue(*). I think you need to rethink that interpretation.
(*) Brief explanation: suppose that $\omega$ is everywhere inexact. Multiply $\omega$ by $f$, where $f$ is zero on a unit-width strip along the diagonal $x = y$, and $1$ outside a two-unit-wide strip along the diagonal. Then $f\omega$ will have zero gradient along the diagonal, hence appear "exact" by your criterion, but outside that wide strip, $f\omega = \omega$, and hence is inexact.