I am having trouble understanding what the following statement means: $$x^2=4 \implies x=2 \hspace{1em} \text{or} \hspace{1em} x=-2.$$
How can we relate this statement to a material conditional?
I am trying to see it as a material conditional. So on the left hand side we have the equation $A(x)$ which takes different truth values for different $x$. The same goes for the right hand side which we can denote it as $B(x)$. Now does the original statement means that $$\forall x \in \mathbb{R}: A(x) \implies B(x).$$
If I substitute the values of $x$ in these two expressions then the conditionals are all true. So how can such a statement make sense when we are trying to solve an equation or when stating the solutions of the equation? Does it mean that in the case that the left hand is true then the value "we substituted" was $2$ or $-2$ in order to make the right hand side also true?

Related post : What's the difference between material implication and logical implication?
An " implies" sentence is a material conditional sentence that is logically true.
One can use $X \implies Y$ to express the fact that , not only it is not (factually) the case that X is true and Y false, but also that it cannot ( logically) be the case.
For example " $x$ lives in Florida " materially implies " $x$ lives in the USA" for all $x$ ( indeed, factually, it is the case for no $x$ that $x$ lives in Florida while $x$ does not live in the USA). But the former does not logically imply the second, for it could be the case one lives in Florida while not living in the USA (in case Florida had not been joinded to the Union, which is a logically possible situation).
So one cannot write : $ Florida(x) \implies USA(x) $ , you cannot deduce the consequent from the antecedent , using logic alone
This sentence can be true or false.
At this stage, you still have a material conditional.
You can express this as:
meaning that there is no possible case in which $x^2 = 4$ is true and $( x=2 \lor x= -2)$ is false.