I'm trying to understand Markov's inequality, and the textbook says:
Let $Z \geq 0$ be a non-negative random variable. Then for all $t \geq 0$ [...]. Note that $P(Z ≥ t) = E[1_{\{Z \geq t\}}]$.
Why is there a $1$ in the expectation? How is it different than $E[Z \geq t]$?
$Z \ge t$ is a event, so does not have a numerical value and so does not have an expectation
$1_{A}$ represents an indicator function, taking the value $1$ if the event $A$ occurs and the value $0$ if $A$ does not occur
Since $1_{Z \ge t}$ takes a numerical value, namely $1$ when $Z \ge t$ occurs and the value $0$ when $Z \not\ge t$, you can therefore find its expectation $\mathbb E\left[1_{Z \ge t}\right]$, which is $\mathbb P(Z \ge t)\times 1 + \mathbb P(Z \not \ge t)\times 0 = \mathbb P(Z \ge t)$