From my lecture notes:
Theorem: Let $(\Omega, \mathcal A, P)$ be a probability space, $A \in \mathcal A, \mathcal M := \{ M_1, \ldots, M_n \} \subset \mathcal A$. The following statements are equivalent:
a) for all $E \in \sigma(\mathcal M): A$ and $E$ are independent;
b) for all $J\subset \{ 1, \ldots, n \}$: $A$ and $\cap_{j\in J} M_j$ are independent.
Proof: One direction is trivial. For the other direction note that $$\mathcal D_A:=\{ E \in \mathcal A \ | \ A \text{ and } E \text{ are independent} \}$$ is a Dynkin system. It contains all sets of type $\cap_{j\in J} M_j$. And since it is a $\cap$-stable system, $\delta(\mathcal M)=\sigma(\mathcal M)$. Thus, $\sigma(\mathcal M)\subset D_A$.
I don't understand the proof. What exactly is $\cap$-stable here? If $\mathcal M$ were $\cap$-stable, we could conclude that $\delta(\mathcal M)=\sigma(\mathcal M)$. But how does the assumption imply that $\mathcal M$ is $\cap$-stable?
If the proof is indeed false, is there any fix that uses $\mathcal D_A$?
A class $\mathcal{C}$ of sets is $\cap$-stable if it is closed under $\cap$. It means that, if $E,F\in\mathcal{C}$ then $E\cap F\in\mathcal{C}$.
In the proof of the theorem it is used that the class $\mathcal{B}$ of all sets of type $\cap_{j\in J} M_j$, where $J\subset \{ 1, \ldots, n \}$, is $\cap$-stable.
It is easy to prove such statement.
$\mathcal{D}_A$ is a Dynkin system and $\mathcal{B}\subseteq \mathcal{D}_A$ so $\delta(\mathcal{B})\subseteq \mathcal{D}_A$, but since $\mathcal{B}$ is $\cap$-stable, we have $\delta(\mathcal{B})=\sigma(\mathcal{B})$, so we have that $\sigma(\mathcal{B})\subseteq \mathcal{D}_A$. Now, note that $\sigma(\mathcal{B})=\sigma(\mathcal{M})$. So we can conclude that $\sigma(\mathcal{M})\subseteq \mathcal{D}_A$.