Consider $f(x)=\sum\limits_{k=1}^n\sin (kx), 0\le x \le \pi$.
Here is the graph of $y=f(x)$ for $n=8$.
I noticed that, as $n\to\infty$, the maximum value of $\frac1n f(x)$ seems to approach a limit of approximately $0.7246$.
What is $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac1n \left(\text{maximum value of }\sum\limits_{k=1}^n\sin (kx)\right)$ ?
My thoughts:
I tried to find the first turning point to the right of the $y$-axis, without success.
I don't know if this helps, but I have found the roots of $f(x)$, and shown that there is exactly one turning point between neighboring roots.
Finding the roots of $f(x)$
$f(x)=\text{Im}\sum\limits_{k=1}^n e^{kxi}=\dots=\dfrac{\sin x+\sin ((nx+x)-x)-\sin (nx+x)}{2-2\cos x}=0$
If $\sin (nx)=0$ then $(\sin x)(1-\cos (nx))=0\implies x=0, \pi, \frac{2k\pi}{n}$
If $\sin (nx+x)=0$ then $(\sin x)(1-\cos ((n+1)x)=0\implies x=0, \pi, \frac{2k\pi}{n+1}$
We have found $n+1$ distinct roots. Now we will show that these are the only roots.
$\sin (kx)=\text{Im}(\cos x+i\sin x)^k=(\sin x)(k-1 \text{ -degree polynomial in $\cos x$})$
$\implies f(x)=(\sin x)(n-1 \text{ -degree polynomial in }\cos x)$
The $n-1 \text{ degree polynomial in }\cos x$ has at most $n-1$ distinct roots in $\cos x$, so it has at most $n-1$ distinct roots in $x$. The roots of $\sin x$ are $0$ and $\pi$. So $f(x)$ has at most $n+1$ distinct roots in $x$. So the $n+1$ roots that I found above, are the only roots.
Showing that $f(x)$ has exactly one turning point between neighboring roots
$\cos (kx)=\text{Re}(\cos x+i\sin x)^k=k \text{ -degree polynomial in $\cos x$}$
$\implies f'(x)=\sum\limits_{k=1}^n k\cos (kx)$ is an $n$ -degree polynomial in $\cos x$
So $f'(x)$ has at most $n$ distinct roots in $\cos x$, so it has at most $n$ distinct roots in $x$.
So $f(x)$ has at most $n$ turning points. Earlier we found that $f(x)$ has at exactly $n+1$ distinct roots. So $f(x)$ has exactly one turning point between neighboring roots.

Define $f_n:[0,\pi]\to\mathbb{R}$ by
$$ f_n(x) = \sum_{k=1}^{n} \sin(kx) = \frac{\sin(\frac{n}{2}x)\sin(\frac{n+1}{2}x)}{\sin(\frac{x}{2})}. $$
1. Narrowing down the location of the maximum point. Note that $f_n(x) \geq 0$ if and only if $\sin(\frac{n}{2}x)$ and $\sin(\frac{n+1}{2}x)$ have the same sign, which occurs precisely when $x$ lies in one of the intervals of the form
$$ I_k = \left[ \frac{2\pi}{n}(k-1), \frac{2\pi}{n+1}k \right], \qquad k = 1,\ldots,n $$
Moreover, if $n \geq 2$, $k \geq 2$, and $x \in I_k\cap [0, \pi]$, then it can be shown that
$$ f_n(x) \leq \frac{1}{\sin(\frac{\pi}{n})} \leq \frac{1}{2\sin(\frac{\pi}{4n})} \leq f_n\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right). $$
Hence, the maximum point of $f_n$ lies in $I_1$.
2. Characterizing the limit. We know that the maximum point of $f_n$ occurs somewhere between $0$ and $\frac{2\pi}{n+1}$. So,
$$ \frac{1}{n} \max_{x \in [0, \pi]} f_n(x) = \max_{t \in [0, 2\pi]} \frac{f_n(t/n)}{n}. $$
However,
$$ \frac{f_n(t/n)}{n} = \sum_{k=1}^{n} \sin\left(\frac{tk}{n}\right) \frac{1}{n} \to \int_{0}^{1} \sin(tu) \, \mathrm{d}u = \frac{1 - \cos t}{t} $$
uniformly in $t \in [0, 2\pi]$. This uniform convergence guarantees that the maximum operator and limit can be interchanged, yielding
$$ M := \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{n} \max_{x \in [0, \pi]} f_n(x) = \max_{t \in [0, 2\pi]} \frac{1 - \cos t}{t}. $$
Below is the graph of $\frac{1-\cos t}{t}$ for $t \in [0, 2\pi]$.
Although the maximum point $t^*$ of this function is unlikely to be given by a closed form, it is easy to locate it numerically, yielding
$$ t^* \approx 2.3311223704144226136, \qquad M = \frac{1-\cos t^*}{t^*} \approx 0.7246113537767084758. $$