Given two random variables $X$ and $Y$ both Bernoulli distributed with the same parameter.
I assume their difference would be binomial distributed but is it so ?
If not how can I come to a conclusion ?
Given two random variables $X$ and $Y$ both Bernoulli distributed with the same parameter.
I assume their difference would be binomial distributed but is it so ?
If not how can I come to a conclusion ?
Copyright © 2021 JogjaFile Inc.